1 John 5:7 & Hebrews 1:8

1 John 5:7 and Hebrews 1:8

Question: I am a minister  (Grace christian church) and my basis for believing trinity is 1John 5:7. This verse does not say one God in three persons but it speaks of the unity of the three: The Father, The Son & Holy spirit. Aside from this, Hebrews 1:8 we find the Father calling the Son: thy throne O God….What is your comments on these verses

PB Tanierla (Philippines)

Answer:  Hellp PB,

Concerning 1 John 5:7, the Greek manuscripts were corrupted much later by a false insertion about the Father, word and spirit.  Though it appeared in the 1611 King James Bible, it has been rejected as a forgery by every modern translation.  It is now regarded as universally false.  You might want to listen to this audio as well concerning the verse and how it came to be inserted.


As far as Hebrews 1:8, the text in Hebrews is showing us how Jesus is superior to the angels.  If we are talking about God Almighty, the Father, this should not even be a point worthy of discussion for obvious reasons.

To be the Son of God means that you are not God!  No one in biblical times thought that God could be born!  (Luke 2:11), much less that God could die (Rom. 5:10).

As Sean Finnegan has well stated concerning the comparison of passages:

Psalm speaks of the Davidic king’s marriage to a foreign princess from Tyre.  The court poet sings of God’s choice of a king, of his role in establishing God’s rule, and of his splendor as he waits for his bring.  The psalmist calls this king (perhaps Solomon) God because he represents God as God’s agent to rule over God’s people.  The king is not called God in an ultimate sense because, as God, he has a God (see Psalm 45:7 or Hebrews 1:9).  So, this Psalm is being applied to Jesus in Hebrews 1:8-9 in order to make the point that he is superior to the angels because he is God’s representative to rule as an anointed one.  Besides, if one concluded that Hebrews 1:8 means that Jesus is God, then the Davidic King of Psalm 45:6 is also God, which would make a “Quadity” rather than a Trinity.See also: “Does Jesus Have a God?”



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1 Response to 1 John 5:7 & Hebrews 1:8

  1. droptozro says:

    Yes the text can be even further studied. I highly wonder now if it’s even Jesus who is being called “God” based on the grammar. It’s more likely it’s “God’s throne” which is in view, which Solomon sat on(1 Chron 29) and Jesus as the ultimate fulfillment also sat upon. The text doesn’t say “O God”—it says “the God”(meaning Father 99% of the time clearly). Besides the claim the Father was speaking this verse when it doesn’t appear that way originally, but that goes into the trinitarian assumption of the argument of the Hebrews writer in Greek.

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